Reading the HHP-8 thread, as well as past Acela I threads, I am very confused at the ownership/lease thing. Apparently these trains are actually owned by some kind of firm, and Amtrak just leases them? Why? What is the accounting reasoning behind this? Can someone explain this like I'm 5?
I can try.
There's two reasons stuff like this happens (and I believe Amtrak has done both).
"I want that $1,000 toy, but I can only pay $100 this month". So, your credit card company says "Great, works for me, pay us $100/month for 12 months and you've got yourself a deal." i.e. you may not have all the money up front, so you pay it a bit at a time.
Or, "I own this $1,000 toy, but I need $800 this month to buy some new toys. I'll sell it to you for $1,000, and then lease it back for $100/month for 12 months." So you still get the benefit of the first toy, but now you can afford the 2nd. And while this may seem silly, imagine if the 2nd toy starts earning you $120/month for the next 12 moths. You come out $240/head than if you didn't do anything.
There's also tax and accounting implications: buying something puts it in a capital expense, leasing an operating expense. With a capital expense, you do get the benefit of being able to depreciate it, which can help your taxes. and I believe if you agree to sell it, you can take the depreciation all at once, which again helps your taxes.
Such arrangements are not uncommon, especially for large capital items that can suffer a lot of wear and tear. I believe a few major airlines lease much of their fleets for the same reason.
There's other benefits too, but I believe the above describes the biggest ones.